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Old 16-06-06, 12:03 PM
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Ladies and Gents Classifications .... why is there such a difference ?

Topic of conversation in work this morning (four archers in a company of 78)

Why are the classification scores for gentlemen so much higher than those for ladies ?
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Old 16-06-06, 12:19 PM
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Because theyre based on percentage spread, and there are fewer ladies.
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Old 16-06-06, 12:48 PM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Murray
Because theyre based on percentage spread, and there are fewer ladies.
That seems a logical way of doing it, so by getting a classification you are getting into a % band of archer. Do you know what the percentage spread is for each classification group ?
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Old 16-06-06, 12:52 PM
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Don't quote me! But I think it's something like:

top 1% - GMB
top 4% - MB
top 15% - Bowman

Or thereabouts.
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Old 16-06-06, 04:07 PM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Murray
Don't quote me! But I think it's something like:

top 1% - GMB
top 4% - MB
top 15% - Bowman

Or thereabouts.
Does that percentage spread carry on into 1st, 2nd and 3rd classes too?
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Old 17-06-06, 12:54 AM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Murray
Don't quote me! But I think it's something like:

top 1% - GMB
top 4% - MB
top 15% - Bowman

Or thereabouts.
I was under the impression that the banding wasn't anywhere near that tight... Off the top of my head, I thought it was something like MB 5%, GMB 2.5%... But I can't recall where I got that notion from.
I also have the impression that it's only MB and GMB which are strictly linked to percentages, as they are a different setup to all the other classifications.

Can anyone point us to some documentation, please?
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